basically, it's pretty elementary. it just depends on the date...

basically, it's pretty elementary. it just depends on the date of transfer of ownership of the original share that was borrowed.
if the shorter sells his borrowed shares before ex div. he will have to pay the divvy to the owner as the ownership of the share is then transferred to a third party.
if the shorter keeps his borrowed shares from before and after ex div. then the owner still gets the original divvy and the shorter does not pay one cent.

this whole conundrum was raised by me because VitaminD appeared to answer my post with ambiguous points of view.

ps- how the hell am i going to ever get that elusive 100K profit scenario, if we have the simplest of stumbling blocks turned into Mt Everest climbs?

cheers crazypunter