Thanks for you time and effort and you may not like what I say here, but it's really not a matter of what I believe but what the Bible says on the whole, or the use of all there areas that are really needed to understand the likes of the Thomas verses.
But as I say often to people on here, some areas although on first glance appear a short and simple answer, they in fact have numerous branches and "these" branches need understanding first to get the whole truth.
On this area, an obvious influence is going to be determined by trinity mindset or non trinity, hence all the branches appear.
So on the surface, your answer sort of has, some yes's and no's.
See,,,, I'm not so pig headed haha.
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The Father is God and by implication so is Jesus (they are in each other).
Certainly not an implication I would make going by the following, unless we believe that people that come to God through Jesus become God as well.
(If so, pull your wait as you might be talking to god
)
John 17:21 - That they all may be one; as thou, Father,
art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
This verse here is or does fit in with God's Key plan of ONE which represents UNITY in the Bible Hence Almighty God is ONE and number ONE, so his end plan is fulfilled and that being He is ALL in ALL.
And this is where most it would seem don't grasp, understand what The Word subject or you could say, that title entails.
God's Word is also Spirit, Breath, picture a firmament, dome, Holy Spirit, His Word, effectively the House, Kingdom your to dwell in, your clothing, food etc.
Anyway, probably driving you ???? if I go there ha.
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Of course that raised the question: Why then did Jesus rely so much on his Father. Well there is a ready made solution to this.
Philippians 2:6-7 New International Version (NIV)
6 Who, being in very nature[a] God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature[b] of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
Acts 2:22 - Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
John 5:30 - I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
John 4:34 - Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work.
Meat - John 6:68 - Then Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life. (The Word, the Fathers).
John 3:34 - For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for (Because) God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
John 6:63 - It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
6 Who, being in very nature[a] God,
John 14:10 - Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
From what we have covered so far, he naturally would appear and be in the very nature of God,
unless he abandoned the will of the Father, but instead -
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature[b] of a servant, being made in human likeness.
So he didn't take off and abuse the power that he had, Spirit without measure which I say is the God & Fathers, but humbled himself as man, which according to the Bible he was, but not of the dust of the earth, but OF God, out from, came forth just as the numerous OT Prophets and Forefathers were told. Their fuel, hopes etc so to speak were on "that" Rock that "followed" (after) them, Jesus Christ.
The Bible no question about it says, or to the effect, he had to be as man to suffer death.
So for people to suggest he was an eternal spirit and then changed, does not fit with the OT prophesies.
So if God as I say the Bible says is The Word which is Spirit and he is The Holy Spirit and Light, then naturally Jesus receiving this without measure, He is going to be in the image of God, hence Jesus saying, if you have seen me, your have seen the Father = You have seen the effects of the Spirit in me in action and heard the Word from within me, my Fathers and I am the light shining from within me, the power, the source The Father.
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Now if your burning bush is referring to the I AM, then that pretty much falls in a hole where it begins in the OT, around two verses away from the I AM one.
Before Abraham I am ( I was) in the mind and plans of God as in the likes of, slain before the foundation of the world, they all followed in the hope of this Rock that "followed".
Yes your probably thinking, wotsup is adding here ha.
Well,,, "we" cannot ignore the many verses showing that, Jesus was first in the mind and plans of God IN the FUTURE context, so our minds NEED to be starting from that mindset.
I AM = Two Greek words are used here and the net goes crazy if I try and paste.
First word and the Greek meaning for "I" = I, the first-person = Jesus slain before the foundation of the world.
Second word which we have AM in our Bible the Greek says it means = I am, exist.
For one the "I" is mentioned twice, supposedly for the words "I am" in our Bibles= not stacking up and "I" would not be mentioned twice, so there has to be more meanings to it.
I, Jesus in the plans of God was slain from the foundation, (first) of the world before Abraham was even thought of.
You search the scriptures for eternal life and "they" are those which speak of me = And they are ALL future context and Not of a pre-existing one, other than in the minds and plan of God.
Sorry mate, I have waffled on, and no need for you to take it any further.
